UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | June 16 to June 22, 2024 (2024)

UPSC Weekly Quizis a current affairs-based quiz on relevant topics from the past week, curated for the aspirants of competitive examinations. Attempt the weekly quizevery Saturdayand find answers to the MCQs with explanations at the end of the article.

1. Nalanda University admitted its very first batch in the year 2019.

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2. Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam was the University’s first Chancellor.

3. The university currently offers only two-year Master’s courses.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

QUESTION 2

With reference to the Post Office Act, 2023, consider the following statements:

1. The act does not exempt the Post Office and its officers from “any liability by reason of any loss.

2. The act repeals the Indian Post Office Act of 1898.

3. The act empowers the state government to “intercept, open or detain any item” in the interest of state security.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

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QUESTION 3

India has commissioned the Maritime Rescue Coordination Centre (MRCC) built with USD 6 million for:

(a) Bangladesh

(b) Maldives

(c) Sri Lanka

(d) Mauritius

QUESTION 4

With reference to the Global Gender Gap Index, consider the following statements:

1. It was first introduced in 2006.

2. It does not take into account political empowerment.

3. The 2024 edition of the Global Gender Gap Index places India at 129 of 146 countries.

4. The index is released by the World Economic Forum.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

QUESTION 5

The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) is a:

(a) Constitutional body

(b) Statutory body

(c) Regulatory body

(d) Quasi-judicial body

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QUESTION 6

Which of the following wildlife Sanctuaries is being developed as India’s second home for cheetahs?

(a) Balaram Ambaji Wildlife Sanctuary

(b) Narayan Sarovar Sanctuary

(c) Melghat Wildlife Sanctuary

(d) Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary

QUESTION 7

Consider the following places:

1. Sabang (Indonesia)

2. Coco Island (Myanmar)

3. Hope Island (India)

Arrange these places in decreasing order of their distance from Andaman and Nicobar Islands

(a) 1—2—3

(b) 2—1—3

(c) 3—2—1

(d) 3—1—2

QUESTION 8

With reference to the pro-tem Speaker, consider the following statements:

1. Pro-tem Speaker administers oaths to the new MPs.

2. The office of the pro-tem Speaker is permanent.

3. The post of pro-tem Speaker is not mentioned in the Constitution of India.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

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QUESTION 9

With reference to the air pollution, consider the following statements:

1. Air pollution is the second leading risk factor for early deaths after high blood pressure.

2. India reported the highest number of pollution-linked deaths in children under the age of five in 2021.

3. Short-term exposure to ozone is linked to Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 3 only

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QUESTION 10

With reference to the Monsoons in India, consider the following statements:

1. The southwest monsoon brings more than half of India’s annual rainfall.

2. The ‘above normal’ rainfall is attributed mainly to the El Nino conditions.

3. During the northeast monsoon, the direction of the monsoon winds is from southwest to northeast.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

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QUESTION 11

Consider the following statements with reference to Amravati art:

1. Enquiry into the Amaravathi Stupa had begun as early as 1816 when James Fergusson first excavated some of the ruins.

2. The appeal of Amaravathi art is evident from the fact that it went on to influence Buddhist artistic productions in several other parts of India, such as the Ajanta caves, as well as other parts of South and Southeast Asia.

3. There was an external influence on the art at Amaravathi, like what we find in Mathura and Gandhara.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

QUESTION 12

Consider the following statements given below:

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1. The Shaivite philosophy of Karnataka was spread widely by the 10th century polymath Abhinavagupta who propounded the concept of ‘Trika’ or Trinity.

2. Lalitaditya Muktapida, the legendary king of Kashmir is said to have drawn yoga out from the exclusive world of sages and meditators, and popularised it among the general mass of his subjects.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

QUESTION 13

Yama, Pratyāhāra, Dhāraṇā, Ṣaṭkarmas, Yukta-karma are related to which of the following doctrines?

(a) Sankhya

(b) Vaishesika

(c) Yoga

(d) Uttara Mimamsa

QUESTION 14

With reference to basic processes of alcohol production, consider the following pairs:

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1. FERMENTATION: When heated, yeast reacts with sugar (from grain, fruits, sugarcane, etc.) to ferment and produce a mixture containing alcohol.

2. DISTILLATION: This is the process of physically separating alcohol from a fermented mixture using evaporation and condensation.

Which of the following pairs is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

QUESTION 15

With reference to new sports getting included in the Olympics, consider the following statements:
1. The 2024 Olympic Games will see the debut of breaking as an Olympic sport.

2. The criteria for being an Olympic sport include that the sport must be among those governed by the International Federations (IFs) recognised by the IOC.

3. The Tokyo 2020 Organising Committee proposed and was able to introduce five new sports.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

ANSWERS TO THE MCQs

1. (d)

FYI:

Prime Minister Narendra Modi formally inaugurated the campus of Nalanda University. The campus spreads across 455 acres and is located near Rajgir, around 100 kilometres from Patna and only 12 km away from the ruins of the namesake old Buddhist monastery.

In 2014, Nalanda University admitted its first 15 students to the School of Historical Studies and the School of Ecology and Environmental Studies. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Amartya Sen, a Nobel Prize-winning economist who had been involved with the project since 2007, became the University’s first Chancellor, while then-President Pranab Mukherjee became the first Visitor. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

—Since 2014, four new schools have been established: the School of Buddhist Studies, Philosophy, and Comparative Religion; the School of Languages and Literature; the School of Management Studies; and the School of International Relations and Peace Studies.

— The university currently offers two-year Master’s courses, PhD programmes, and a few diploma and certificate courses. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

2. (a)

FYI:

—The Post Office Act came into force on June 18. It was passed in the Rajya Sabha last year, on December 4, and in the Lok Sabha on December 18.

The Act, which repeals the 125-year-old Indian Post Office Act of 1898, gives the Centre the authority to detain, open, or intercept any item and then turn it over to customs officials. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Section 9 of the Act allows the Centre to, by notification, empower any officer to “intercept, open or detain any item” in the interest of state security, friendly relations with foreign states, public order, emergency, public safety, or contravention of other laws. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

—This provision also allows post officers to hand over postal items to customs authorities if they are suspected to contain any prohibited item, or if such items are liable to duty.

—Section 19(1) disallowed persons from sending by post “any explosive, dangerous, filthy, noxious or deleterious substance, any sharp instrument not properly protected, or any living creature which is either noxious or likely to injure postal articles” or postal service officers in the course of transmission.

Section 10 exempts the Post Office and its officer from “any liability by reason of any loss, mis-delivery, delay, or damage in course of any service provided by the Post Office,” except such liability as may be prescribed. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

—The Act removes all penalties and offences under the 1898 Act. For example, offences committed by post office officials such as misconduct, fraud, and theft, among others, have been deleted entirely. At the same time, if anyone refuses or neglects to pay the charges for availing a service provided by the Post Office, such amount shall be recoverable “as if it were an arrear of land revenue due” from them.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

3. (c)

FYI:

External Affairs Minister S Jaishankar met with Sri Lankan President Ranil Wickremesinghe and commissioned the Maritime Rescue Coordination Centre, which was established with a USD 6 million gift from India, during his first bilateral visit abroad since being reappointed to the Cabinet.

—It includes a centre at Navy Headquarters in Colombo, a sub-centre in Hambantota and unmanned installations at Galle, Arugambay, Batticaloa, Trincomalee, Kallarawa, Point Pedro and Mullikulam.

—According to Jaishankar, neighbours like Sri Lanka are incredibly important to India, and there is a lot of goodwill towards them in the country. He stated that the Indian government upholds the ‘Neighbourhood First’ Policy, and that his visit is primarily intended to highlight India’s continuous commitment to Sri Lanka as its closest maritime neighbour.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

4. (c)

FYI:

— The 2024 edition of the Global Gender Gap Index places India at 129 out of the 146 countries. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

— It was first introduced in 2006. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

— It is a combination of four different sub-indices — economic participation and opportunity, educational attainment, health and survival and political empowerment — each summarising multiple indicators. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

—The index is released by the World Economic Forum and it ranges between 0 and 1, with 1 indicating total parity. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

—It does not include everything that is important for gender equality, but instead concentrates on a few critical indicators.

—The 2024 report states that India’s “Health and Survival Score” is 0.951, indicating that 95.1% of the male-female difference has been closed. Similarly, the educational attainment gap has been closed by 96.4%.

—India ranks 142nd out of 146 countries in terms of economic involvement, with a score of 39.8%.

—India ranks 65th in the world in terms of political engagement, despite having closed only 25.1% of the gap.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

5. (b)

FYI:

—The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights has requested thorough medical evaluations for each of the 59 children who were saved from a Madhya Pradesh distillery, as well as new FIRs under applicable legislation for the youngsters who are still missing.

—Apex child rights body National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) and the Association of Voluntary Action, also known as Bachpan Bachao Andolan (BBA), led the crackdown on the Som Distillery.

—The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) has been constituted by the Government of India, under the Commission for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act,2005 to exercise and perform the powers and functions assigned to it under CPCR Act,2005.

—There was evidence of hazardous working conditions found during the NCPCR’s inquiry. It stated that numerous kids had chemical burns on their hands, pointing to the facility’s dangerous and exploitative procedures.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

6. (d)

FYI:

—The Gandhi Sagar Wildlife Sanctuary will be India’s second habitat for cheetahs, following the Kuno National Park. The Madhya Pradesh government has stated that it has finished planning for the huge project.

—The sanctuary covers 368.62 square kilometres in the districts of Mandsaur (187.12 square kilometres) and Neemuch (181.5 square kilometres) in western Madhya Pradesh, near the Rajasthan border.

—It is located on a flat rocky plateau, with the Chambal River cutting the sanctuary in two nearly equal halves. The sanctuary includes the Gandhi Sagar dam, built on the river in 1960, as well as parts of its reservoir, which is 726 square kilometres in size and the third largest in the country.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

7. (d)

FYI:

—The Congress party has described the proposed Rs 72,000-crore infra upgrade at the Great Nicobar Island as a “grave threat” to the island’s indigenous inhabitants and fragile ecosystem, and demanded “immediate suspension of all clearances” and a “thorough, impartial review of the proposed project, including by the Parliamentary committees concerned”.

—Great Nicobar is the southernmost and largest of the Nicobar Islands, a sparsely inhabited 910-sq-km patch of mainly tropical rainforest in southeastern Bay of Bengal.

—Indira Point on the island, India’s southernmost point, is only 90 nautical miles (less than 170 km) from Sabang at the northern tip of Sumatra, the largest island of the Indonesian archipelago.

—Great Nicobar has two national parks, a biosphere reserve, small populations of the Shompen and Nicobarese tribal peoples, and a few thousand non-tribal settlers.

—The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are a cluster of 836 islands, split into two groups — the Andaman Islands to the north and the Nicobar Islands to the south — by the 150-km wide Ten Degree Channel.

—The distance of these islands from the Andaman and Nicobar Islands are:

Hope Island (India) – 1294 Km (approximately)

Sabang (Indonesia) – 622 Km (approximately)

Coco Island (Myanmar) – 381 Km (approximately)

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

8. (b)

FYI:

—The 18th Lok Sabha will hold its maiden session from June 24 to July 3, when the next Speaker of the House will be elected.

—According to a PTI report, Prime Minister Narendra Modi would bring a resolution to elect the Speaker in the Lok Sabha on June 26. Meanwhile, Congress leader Kodikunnil Suresh, the most senior member of the Lok Sabha, is set to be chosen pro-tem Speaker.

—Article 94 of the Indian Constitution provides that “Whenever the House of the People is dissolved, the Speaker shall not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.”

— In the new Lok Sabha, the Speaker of the House is elected by a simple majority. Until her appointment, the pro-tem Speaker is chosen to perform several key functions. ‘Pro-tem’ basically means ‘for the time being’ or ‘temporary’. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

There is no mention of the post in the constitution. However, the official ‘Handbook on the Workings of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs’ refers to the ‘Appointment and Swearing in of Speaker pro tem’. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

—According to the handbook, when the Speaker position becomes empty before a new Lok Sabha, “the duties of the Speaker are to be performed by a Member of the House appointed for this purpose by the President as Speaker pro tem”.

The major role of the pro-tem Speaker is to administer oaths to newly elected MPs. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

—Normally, the President appoints three additional elected members of the Lok Sabha to witness the MPs taking their oath. According to the rulebook, the seniormost members (in terms of number of years in the House) are typically picked for the task, however there have been exceptions.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

9. (a)

FYI:

According to the recently released State of Global Air Report, air pollution has caused 8.1 million deaths around the world in 2021 with China and India accounting for more than half of the global burden at 2.3 and 2.1 million deaths respectively.

— As per the report, air pollution is considered to be one of the biggest killers globally, second only to high blood pressure. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

—India is one of the countries with the greatest levels of air pollution. India and China account for 55% of the worldwide burden of air pollution deaths, with 2.1 million and 2.3 million, respectively.

—Indians are exposed to high amounts of both particulate matter and ozone. Short-term exposure to ozone has been associated to an exacerbation of asthma and other respiratory symptoms, whereas long-term exposure has been connected to Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD), a condition in which the lungs stay inflamed and block airflow. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

India also had the largest number of pollution-related deaths among children under the age of five in 2021, with at least 169,400 deaths connected to air pollution. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

10. (a)

FYI:

—The southwest monsoon, which began early in Kerala, has moved on to Maharashtra, while maximum temperatures in North India’s plains have remained between 45 and 47 degrees Celsius.

— The southwest monsoon from June to September brings more than 70% of India’s annual rainfall. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

—The India Meteorological Department (IMD) predicts ‘above-normal’ rainfall this season. Quantitatively, it is anticipated to be 106% of the Long Period Average of 880 mm (1971-2020).

The ‘above normal’ rainfall is linked to the upcoming La Niña conditions, which positively influence the Indian monsoon, and a positive phase of the Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD). Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

—The northeast monsoon is another significant and persistent aspect of the Indian subcontinent’s climate system. Its name comes from the direction of the monsoon winds, which blow from northeast to southwest. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

—During the three months from October to December, these winds sweep up moisture from the Bay of Bengal and deposit it over the southern states of Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, and even south Telangana and Karnataka.

—The Northeast monsoon is also known as the winter monsoon, retreating monsoon, or reverse monsoon.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

(Other Source: weather.com)

11. (c)

FYI:

—“One must also remember that there is yet no evidence that there was any external influence on the art at Amaravathi, unlike what we find in Mathura and Gandhara where there was a lot of Graeco-Roman influence,” says Professor Amareswar Galla, an international expert in sustainable heritage development, and the former chief curator of the Amaravathi heritage town. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

—Although the enquiry into the Amaravathi Stupa had begun as early as 1816 when Colonel Mackenzie first excavated some of the ruins, the interest at this point was more around the dating and nature of the monument.

—It was only in the 1860s when the orientalist James Fergusson published a detailed account of the stupa in his book Tree and Serpent Worship that enquiry into the art of Amaravathi began. As Kinnard notes, this book “proved to be tremendously influential in the understanding of early Buddhist art and ritual practice”.

—Srinivasan says that Amaravathi later got established as a specific style of art through the writings of 20th century scholars such as C. Sivaramamurti, and Douglas Barrett and because it spawned or was a benchmark for similar regional sculpture at early historic Buddhist sites in Andhra,Telangana and Karnataka (such as Phanigiri, Nagarjunakonda and Sannati). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

—The appeal of Amaravathi art is evident from the fact that it went on to influence Buddhist artistic productions in several other parts of India, such as the Ajanta caves, as well as other parts of South and Southeast Asia. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

12. (b)

FYI:

Kashmir’s Trika Shaivism

A unique Shaivite tradition arose in Kashmir around 850 CE, when the Gurjar-Pratiharas, seen as the last great empire in North India before the arrival of the Muslims, were ruling over much of the Indo-Gangetic plains.

—The Shaivite philosophy of Kashmir was spread widely and beyond the valley by the 10th century polymath Abhinavagupta who propounded the concept of ‘Trika’ or Trinity, as a consequence of which Kashmir Shaivism is also known as Trika Shaivism. The philosophy and practices of yoga are integral to Trika Shaivism, which had important intersections with Hath-yoga traditions such as the Nath school of Gorakshanath and the Dashanami Sampradaya of sannyasis. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

—Abhinavagupta is said to have been born in a Saraswat Brahmin family of scholars in c. 950 CE, and was given the name of Shankara. The name Abhinavagupta was bestowed on him by his master as an acknowledgment of his competence and authoritativeness. Abhinavagupta’s family was originally from Kannauj, and his ancestors are said to have migrated to Kashmir upon the invitation of Lalitaditya Muktapida, the legendary king of Kashmir who is believed to have reigned from 724 CE to 760 CE.

—The main source of information about Lalitaditya is the Rajatarangini, written by the 12th century Kashmiri writer Kalhana. Apart from being a great conqueror, he is supposed to have been a patron of the arts and culture, the builder of the Martand Sun Temple, and a promoter of the traditions and philosophy of tantric yoga. His patronage is said to have drawn yoga out from the exclusive world of sages and meditators, and popularised it among the general mass of his subjects. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

13. (c)

FYI:

—“Yoga is an ancient physical, mental and spiritual practice that originated in India. The word ‘yoga’ derives from the Sanskrit and means to join or to unite, symbolizing the union of body and consciousness,” the United Nations website says.

—While the word is most commonly associated these days with anaerobic physical exercise and techniques of stretching and breathing that have recognised health benefits, in its broad sense, it can be translated as spiritual discipline or application. Its philosophical roots lie in the Six Doctrines of Salvation in Hinduism, in which Yoga forms a related and complementary pair with Sankhya, the other two pairs being Nyaya and Vaishesika, and Mimosa and Vedanta. (AL Basham, ‘The Wonder That Was India’)

—Yoga encapsulates a broad set of religious practices and acts of self-mortification, the practitioner of which is called a Yogi. An early school of yogic philosophy emphasised psychic training as a means of salvation, drawing from the Yoga Sutras of the grammarian Patanjali. In the medieval period, the techniques of yoga were employed by various tantric schools who made the exercises increasingly difficult, and the practice attained a certain exclusivity.

—In its ‘Common Yoga Protocol’ from 2019, the Ministry of Ayurveda, Yoga & Naturopathy, Unani, Siddha and hom*oeopathy (AYUSH) lists Yama, Niyama, Āsana, Prāṇāyāma, Pratyāhāra, Dhāraṇā, Dhyāna, Samādhi, Bandhās and Mudrās, Ṣaṭkarmas,Yuktāhāra, Mantra-japa,Yukta-karma as popular yoga ‘sadhanas’.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

14. (c)

FYI:

At least 34 people have died, and around 100 others have been hospitalised after consuming hooch, or spurious liquor, in Tamil Nadu’s Kallakurichi. Sources indicate that the official death toll may be understated, as several individuals reportedly died before reaching medical facilities.

How is hooch produced?

—All alcohol is produced using two basic processes: fermentation and distillation.

—FERMENTATION: When heated, yeast reacts with sugar (from grain, fruits, sugarcane, etc.) to ferment and produce a mixture containing alcohol. This is an age-old process, used to create beverages like beer or wine. But it comes with a basic limitation. As fermentation continues, and alcohol levels rise, conditions in the mixture become toxic for the yeast. Eventually, no more fermentation can take place. Thus, to make anything stronger (above 14-18% ABC), beverages need to be distilled.

—DISTILLATION: This is the process of physically separating alcohol from a fermented mixture using evaporation and condensation. Since different parts of the mixture have different boiling points, heating it up to the correct temperature makes it possible to separate only the alcohol from the water and other remnants. Distilled beverages, or spirits, are far more potent than any fermented beverage.

—Hooch is produced using distillation of a fermented mixture, generally of locally available yeast, and sugar or fruit (often fruit waste). But the setup used for the process is very rudimentary — often just a big vat where the mixture is boiled, a pipe that captures and carries the alcoholic fumes, and another pot where concentrated alcohol condenses. Multiple rounds of distillation are carried out, to produce more potent alcohol.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

15. (d)

FYI:

The 2024 Olympic Games will take place in Paris, from July 26 to August 11. This year’s Games will see the debut of breaking (or breakdancing) as an Olympic sport. Surfing, skateboarding, and sports climbing had debuted in the Tokyo Games, held in 2021. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The Indian Express reported that for India’s bid to hold the 2036 Olympics in Ahmedabad, the Sports Ministry is likely to recommend the inclusion of yoga, Twenty20 cricket, kabaddi, chess, squash, and kho kho.

—The criteria for being an Olympic sport include the following:

1. The sport must be among those governed by the International Federations (IFs) recognised by the IOC; Hence, statement 2 is correct.

2. It must adhere to the Olympic Charter, a collection of codified rules and principles that dictate the running and organisation of the Olympic Games;

3. It must adhere to the World Anti-Doping Code, a unified document that standardises anti-doping policies, rules, and regulations across all sports and nations; and

4. It must adhere to the Olympic Movement Code for the Prevention of Tampering in Competition, which seeks to safeguard the integrity of sports against any form of cheating.

The Tokyo 2020 Organising Committee proposed and was able to introduce five new sports — surfing, karate, sport climbing, skateboarding, and baseball/softball. Surfing, karate and sports climbing will also feature this year, on the behest of the Paris Organising Committee. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

What new sports are likely to be featured in this year’s Games?

—Paris 2024 is set to introduce breaking as a new Olympic sport. According to the sport’s page on the Olympics website, it is an “urban dance style that originated in the United States in the 1970s. With roots in hip-hop culture, breaking first took form in the lively block parties in the Bronx borough of New York, and is characterised by acrobatic movements, stylised footwork”.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

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UPSC Weekly Current Affairs Quiz | June 16 to June 22, 2024 (2024)
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